04-18-2016, 12:46 PM
(This post was last modified: 04-18-2016, 12:57 PM by APeacefulWarrior.)
Since we already have one good discussion going on regarding space/time vs time/space, this seems like a good time for me to throw out a (probably somewhat trivial) question I've been pondering for awhile.
At multiple points, Ra refers to both "probability/possibility" AND "possibility/probability" vortices, when he talks about the intricacies of trying to read the future. He seems to favor "possibility/probability" by about 2:1, judging by search results, but still uses both versions. He even occasionally uses both in the same sentence, such as "This is approximate due to the fact that parallel possibility/probability vortices cease when action occurs and new probability/possibility vortices are begun." (11.3) At another point, he uses them alternately in back-to-back answers, 36.2 and 36.3.
Which leads me to wonder: Is there actually a difference, as there is with space/time vs time/space? Or are the terms effectively interchangeable, with the slash merely representing overlapping definitions?
Personally, I really can't find that much which would suggest they have significantly different definitions. But it seems unlike Ra to use terminology in a vague or unclear fashion, especially since his use of slashed words is generally more precise than that. If there was only one definition, wouldn't he have picked one variation on the term and stuck with it?
Anyone got an opinion on this one?
At multiple points, Ra refers to both "probability/possibility" AND "possibility/probability" vortices, when he talks about the intricacies of trying to read the future. He seems to favor "possibility/probability" by about 2:1, judging by search results, but still uses both versions. He even occasionally uses both in the same sentence, such as "This is approximate due to the fact that parallel possibility/probability vortices cease when action occurs and new probability/possibility vortices are begun." (11.3) At another point, he uses them alternately in back-to-back answers, 36.2 and 36.3.
Which leads me to wonder: Is there actually a difference, as there is with space/time vs time/space? Or are the terms effectively interchangeable, with the slash merely representing overlapping definitions?
Personally, I really can't find that much which would suggest they have significantly different definitions. But it seems unlike Ra to use terminology in a vague or unclear fashion, especially since his use of slashed words is generally more precise than that. If there was only one definition, wouldn't he have picked one variation on the term and stuck with it?
Anyone got an opinion on this one?