04-18-2012, 09:01 AM
This would mean, in the context that my higher self is presenting it to me (events with synch nature before and after and during event) that luciferianists are in general more accurate with their information than their christian counterparts. Which leads me to believe that all is not well with this particular viewpoint.
Am I misreading this or does that mean that Ra as the entity is aligned with / working with lucifer? That seems to indicate that in Ra's view Lucifer is not an anomaly of the system that is the object of the study of the system but rather an actual component of the system. If so. Where is, in Ra's view, the object of the study? Would that then be the interaction between the individual anomalieis in themselves and change of language from referring to lucifer as "the anomaly" into a polytheistic view with various deitieis as anomalieies and the mid-east history of a single god as being one particularly messed up interpretation of the actuality of the situation. Made possible by free will. Because if so then did most of the church just all get up one day and say "We aint listening to you no more" to god and cause the dark age, or, how does our history match up with Ra's understanding. Because it is very difficult to accept the history of the middle ages as being the result of a "lack of communication with gods". If there is an active policy to respond to communication attempts then why did that particular era have less contact?
OR is that because of christianity itself and its message as forcing people away from "the light" or such. I'm not sure i'm on the same page here.
Am I misreading this or does that mean that Ra as the entity is aligned with / working with lucifer? That seems to indicate that in Ra's view Lucifer is not an anomaly of the system that is the object of the study of the system but rather an actual component of the system. If so. Where is, in Ra's view, the object of the study? Would that then be the interaction between the individual anomalieis in themselves and change of language from referring to lucifer as "the anomaly" into a polytheistic view with various deitieis as anomalieies and the mid-east history of a single god as being one particularly messed up interpretation of the actuality of the situation. Made possible by free will. Because if so then did most of the church just all get up one day and say "We aint listening to you no more" to god and cause the dark age, or, how does our history match up with Ra's understanding. Because it is very difficult to accept the history of the middle ages as being the result of a "lack of communication with gods". If there is an active policy to respond to communication attempts then why did that particular era have less contact?
OR is that because of christianity itself and its message as forcing people away from "the light" or such. I'm not sure i'm on the same page here.