STO: Well meant and unintentional slavery

[βαθμιαίος]

If I may be so bold, it appears to me that 83.9 directly refutes your conjecture:

However, the societies before veiling did not depend in any case upon the intentional enslavement of some for the benefit of others, this not being seen to be a possibility when all are seen as one.

Not necessarily -- that's referring to intentional enslavement, while we're discussing unintentional.

Perhaps my read is a bit obtuse- but if "all are seen as one" what would be the purpose of "codification of response"? Wouldn't one be considered free to respond to oneself as one desires?

By the same token, what would the purpose of governmental structures be? Ra said they were produced by disharmony. It seems to me that attempts to codify response are a logical consequence of attempts to deal with disharmony in a structural way. That could be just my own presumptions speaking, though.

As regards Atlantis- I don't really know. Are you aware of any other resources on Atlantis that speak directly to this?

No.