06-11-2021, 01:13 PM
Is logic, in its purest form, axiomatic by definition, and therefore unprovable?
As far as I know, even the most rigorous logical systems are constantly under the risk of dismissal by inconsistency.
Even these systems are bound to relative semantic social constructs, which are as changeable as the people who set them in the first place.
Therefore, as to answer OP's question: not necessarily, as the question implies a non sequitur (affirming the consequent).
Logic itself has somewhat of fragile foundations when examined in full detail, as the social system that sets it is bound by the constraints and limits of the Self Interface that sets it: being the most common constraints correlated with the three first energy centers, considering that, despite inhabiting a 4D environment, we use a 3D body to interact in it.
As far as I know, even the most rigorous logical systems are constantly under the risk of dismissal by inconsistency.
Even these systems are bound to relative semantic social constructs, which are as changeable as the people who set them in the first place.
Therefore, as to answer OP's question: not necessarily, as the question implies a non sequitur (affirming the consequent).
Logic itself has somewhat of fragile foundations when examined in full detail, as the social system that sets it is bound by the constraints and limits of the Self Interface that sets it: being the most common constraints correlated with the three first energy centers, considering that, despite inhabiting a 4D environment, we use a 3D body to interact in it.
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